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Johannes De Silentio's avatar

https://x.com/rawbloodenjoyer/status/1784451729331032186?s=46&t=YFeGPiZL3mos8Dqb1Hnvxw here’s a thread that talks about what you mention at the end

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Sectionalism Archive's avatar

Thank u bro. I thought it was a substack article bt it was a twatter post

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Viddao's avatar

I was going to mention that guy on Twitter (raw blood enjoyer). Thanks!

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Johannes De Silentio's avatar

You can explain the south of Germany being more catholic because they are more alpinoid celtic mutts with superstition in their dna. Nordics are the complete opposite, Nietzsche talks about this in BGE.

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Sectionalism Archive's avatar

Le perhaps. The same thing happened the British Isles. The Highlands were the last places to convert to Calvinism and Anglicanism. But "more superstition" is the incorrect description. If anything, Northern Germans were more superstitious if we judge by that study. One of the components of "Shallow Christianity" (which peaks in North Germany) was belief in clairvoyance. The rationalism of people like Descartes and Aquinas is also perhaps less "superstitious" than something like Kierkegaard

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Johannes De Silentio's avatar

“Catholicism draws from Jewish traditions of legalism while low-church Protestantism is more influenced by the experiential natural spirituality of Northern Europeans who converted from Paganism. Like how the Supreme Court is Jewish and Catholic and doesn't have a single Evangelical, despite Evangelicals making up a much larger share of the population. Also why Jews convert much more often to Catholicism than to the low-church denominations.”

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Sectionalism Archive's avatar

No, no, I think not. Catholics are less legalistic, they cram a bunch of Plato and Aristotle into their church business. Protestants argue entirely based on interpreting scripture which is more like what Jews do. The Talmud is a bunch of Jews lawyering over the Torah basically.

Supreme Court is so Jewish and Catholic probably for other reasons. IDK what Jews convert to most but in Germany I think a lot of them converted to Protestantism before the 'caust

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Johannes De Silentio's avatar

Interesting considering Protestants are always called antinomian by papists (they don’t worship Mary chungussy fupa like a true tradcath should) on your last point I’m not sure if that’s true. Nazi Germany was not like the reconquista at all, there wasn’t a get out of jail free card with conversion, you were targeted based on your ethnicity as a Jew rather than your religion (same thing I guess) but the Nazis didn’t believe in a reformed jew like the catholix did and that’s how a lot of conversos made their way into high positions during the inquisition.

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Sectionalism Archive's avatar

It's Catholic attack on Lutherans for not having any sort of "catechism" or whatever. Luther gets mad when xey call him antinomian.

The Nazis weren't Lutherans, they just did a good job "converting" Lutherans to their cause.

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Johannes De Silentio's avatar

“The Nazis weren’t Lutheran they just killed a bunch of jews for Christ like Martin Luther advocated for and handed out his books at every rally”

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Sectionalism Archive's avatar

1. They didn’t kill Jews “for Christ”, they did it for themselves.

2. Luther believed Jews could be redeemed through conversion, believed this conversion would one day come from God himself. I’m pretty sure Luther’s antisemitism was heavily influenced by Johannes Pfefferkorn, who was himself a Jewish convert.

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Apollinaire's avatar

This post makes sense. We were rabbis and the like!

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Oranon's avatar

what do you think on the argument that the Germanic peoples were originally indo europeanized and not indo european?

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Sectionalism Archive's avatar

It’s an interesting argument, I’ve heard it before. Germanics clearly have some GAC/Funnelbeaker lineages implying that some Neolithic warlords were able to assimilate into the Paleo-Germanic elite. There’s also the alleged Pre-Germanic Substrate.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Germanic_substrate_hypothesis

Problem: both of these things are also true for Greek. Greek has a pelasgian substrate and Mycenaeans mostly had local Y-DNA. Hell, we even know that the Greeks had to mostly assimilate local lords because the Greeks themselves record the history of the Hellenes as doing such. And yet, we don’t consider Greeks “non-IE” because that was obviously the dominant prevailing culture. So I don’t see why people call Germanics “non-IE” under the same grounds.

Maybe it is because Germanic tribes didnt have a necessary reason to integrate EEF warlords, while the heavily outnumbered Hellenes did. So the Hellenes were perhaps more chauvinistic but had less of an ability to act on it, while the Germans actually formed a more amicable relationship with the EEFs of the area

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Oranon's avatar

Interesting, i’ve heard that many of the celts were matrilineal in lineage and not patrilineal. Also i find it interesting how disproportionately high WHG y-dna is considering that they weren’t a very numerous group

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